Corporate Issuers
CFA® Level I, published weight 6–9%. Governance, working capital, capital allocation, capital structure.
What the outline covers
- Organizational Forms, Corporate Issuer Features, and Ownership
- Investors and Other Stakeholders
- Corporate Governance: Conflicts, Mechanisms, Risks, and Benefits
- Working Capital and Liquidity
- Capital Investments and Capital Allocation
- Capital Structure
- Business Models
Sample questions
These 5 questions are free in the app too. Try each one before opening the answer.
Question 1
A project requires an initial outlay of $1,000,000 and generates $300,000 per year for five years. At a cost of capital of 10%, the NPV is closest to:
Outlay 1,000,000 · CF 300,000 × 5 yrs · r = 10%
A. −$62,000
B. +$137,000
C. +$500,000
D. +$1,137,000
Show the answer
B. The five-year annuity factor at 10% is 3.7908, so PV = 300,000 × 3.7908 = $1,137,236. NPV = 1,137,236 − 1,000,000 ≈ +$137,000.
Reading: Corporate Issuers — Capital Investments and Capital Allocation, LOS 5.c
Question 2
When NPV and IRR give conflicting rankings for two mutually exclusive projects, an analyst should most appropriately:
A. Choose the project with the higher IRR
B. Choose the project with the higher NPV
C. Choose the project with the shorter payback
D. Reject both projects
Show the answer
B. NPV measures the value added in currency terms and assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital, which is the economically defensible assumption.
Reading: Corporate Issuers — Capital Investments and Capital Allocation, LOS 5.d
Question 3
A firm has a target capital structure of 40% debt and 60% equity, a pre-tax cost of debt of 6%, a cost of equity of 11% and a tax rate of 25%. Its WACC is closest to:
w_d 40% · r_d 6% · w_e 60% · r_e 11% · t 25%
A. 8.40%
B. 8.40% before tax only
C. 7.80%
D. 9.20%
Show the answer
A. WACC = 0.40 × 6% × (1 − 0.25) + 0.60 × 11% = 1.80% + 6.60% = 8.40%. Only the debt component is tax-affected.
Reading: Corporate Issuers — Capital Structure, LOS 6.b
Question 4
A firm reports days of inventory on hand of 60, days sales outstanding of 45 and days of payables of 30. Its cash conversion cycle is:
DOH 60 · DSO 45 · DPO 30
A. 45 days
B. 75 days
C. 105 days
D. 135 days
Show the answer
B. CCC = DOH + DSO − DPO = 60 + 45 − 30 = 75 days. This is the length of time cash is tied up in the operating cycle.
Reading: Corporate Issuers — Working Capital and Liquidity, LOS 4.c
Question 5
The conflict of interest between controlling and minority shareholders is best described as:
A. A principal–agent problem
B. A principal–principal problem
C. A stakeholder externality
D. A regulatory arbitrage
Show the answer
B. Both parties are owners, so it is a principal–principal conflict. The principal–agent problem sits between shareholders and managers.
Reading: Corporate Issuers — Corporate Governance, LOS 3.a
Practise more
The app adds snapshot cards, timed question sessions and a spaced-repetition review queue for this topic area, and works offline.
Get Cornerstone on Google Play (Android)
Follow the daily questions on WhatsApp
All CFA topic areas · CFA glossary
Cornerstone is an independent study aid. It is not affiliated with, authorised by, endorsed by or sponsored by CFA Institute.